CIVIL ENGINEERING MCQ – PART:10
1. Which of the following ferrous metals has the largest amount of
carbon?a. Steel b. Wrought iron
c. Cast iron
2. Which of the following ferrous metals is least corrosion
resistant?a. Steel b. Wrought iron
c. Cast iron
3. An integrated mill produces steel using
a. steel
scrap.
b. iron
ore.
c. 25%
to 50% iron ore plus 25% to 50% scrap.
d. none
of the above.
4. The mini-mill method of steel manufacturing predates
the
integrated-mill method.
a. True
b. False
5. An electric arc furnace uses
a. two
electrodes to melt iron ore.
b. two
electrodes to melt steel scrap.
c. three
electrodes to melt iron ore.
d. three
electrodes to melt steel scrap.
e. none
of the above.
6. Slag is
a. a
waste product generated from the manufacture of steel.
b. the
ore used for making steel.
c. the
ore used for making aluminum.
d. a
ferrous metal that has been replaced by steel.
e. none
of the above.
7. When steel structures first appeared, they were called
a. skeleton
frame. b. skeleton cage.
c. steel
skeleton. d. all of the above.
e. none
of the above.
8. Which of the following statements is true?
a. All
structural steel sections are made from billets or blooms that are rolled to
shape at room temperature.
b. All
structural steel sections are made by preheating steel sheets and bending them
to the required cross sections.
c. All
structural steel sections are made by bending steel sheets to the required
cross sections at room temperature.
d. All
structural steel sections are made by preheating billets or blooms and rolling
them to shape.
e. none
of the above.
9. Steel decks are made from cold-formed steel.
a. True b.
False
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CIVIL ENGINEERING MCQ – PART:09
CIVIL ENGINEERING MCQ – PART:08
CIVIL ENGINEERING MCQ – PART:07
CIVIL ENGINEERING MCQ – PART:06
CIVIL ENGINEERING MCQ – PART:05
CIVIL ENGINEERING MCQ – PART:04
CIVIL ENGINEERING MCQ – PART:03
CIVIL ENGINEERING MCQ – PART:02
CIVIL ENGINEERING MCQ – PART:01
10. The steel type
most commonly used for framing members (columns and beams) of a steel building
is
a. steel
type A36 with a yield strength of 36 ksi.
b. steel
type A36 with a yield strength of 360 ksi.
c. steel
type A992 with a yield strength of 50 ksi.
d. steel
type A992 with a yield strength of 40 ksi.
e. none
of the above.
11. A W-shape
section is so called because
a. it
is an I-section with wide flanges.
b. it
is an I-section with a wide web.
c. its
cross-sectional shape resembles the letter W.
d. it
is a rectangular section whose width is larger than its depth.
12. W-shape, S-shape, HP-shape, and M-shape are all
structural steel
I-sections.
a. True b.
False
13. Which of the following steel shapes is most commonly
used for the
structural frame of buildings?
a. HP-shape
b. S-shape
c. M-shape
d. W-shape
e. C-shape
14. The designation W14 * 38
means that the
a. width
of the section is 14 in. and the depth is 38 in.
b. depth
of the section is 14 in. and the width is 38 in.
c. depth
of the section is 14 in. and its weight is 38 lb/ft.
d. nominal
depth of the section is 14 in. and its weight is 38 lb/ft.
e. none
of the above.
15. To obtain the structural engineering properties of
standard steel sections, the following publication is generally used.
a. Steel
Fabricators’ Manual
b. Steel
Construction Manual
c. ASTM standard on steel sections
d. Local
manufacturers’ literature
e. Steel
Erectors’ Manual
16. In a steel angle, both legs must have the same
thickness but may be of different lengths.
a. True b.
False
17. The acronym HSS stands for
a. heat-strengthened
steel. b. high-strength steel.
c. high-strength
section. d. hollow steel section.
e. none
of the above.
18.
HSS
members are made by
a. bending
and welding heated steel plates.
b. cold
rolling of steel blooms.
c. hot
rolling of steel blooms.
d. casting
molten steel to shape.
e. any
one of the above, depending on the manufacturer.
19. Which of the following does not represent a steel
joist series?
a. H-series
b. J-series
c. K-series
d. LH-series
e. DLH-series
20. In the steel joist designation 24LH10, the number 24
gives the
a. length
of the joist in feet.
b. depth
of the joist in inches.
c. weight
of the joist in pounds per foot.
d. number
of web members.
e. none
of the above.
Mcq-11
21. A K-series steel joist that is 20 in. deep cannot be
used to span more than
a. 20
ft. b. 25 ft.
c. 30
ft. d. 35 ft.
e. 40 ft.
22. Steel joists are braced against instability by
a. horizontal
bridging members at the bottom of the joists.
b. horizontal
bridging members at the top of the joists.
c. (a)
or (b).
d. (a) and (b).
e. none
of the above.
23. Diagonal bridging may be used as an alternative to
horizontal bridging to stabilize steel joists.
a. True b. False
24. Steel joists and joist girders are best utilized in a
building that has concentrated loads.
a. True
b. False
25. Steel roof decks are either form decks or composite
decks.
a. True
b. False
26. Steel floor decks are either form decks or composite
decks.
a. True b. False
27. The thickness of sheet steel in a roof or floor deck
is generally specified in terms of
a. inches.
b. millimeters.
c. gauge number.
d. any one of the above.
28. Which of the following decks requires structural
concrete topping?
a. Form
deck b. Composite deck
c. Floor
deck d. all of the above
e. none
of the above
29. Roof decks are anchored to supporting members by
continuous
welds along the support lines.
a. True
b. False
30. A pour stop is generally used with
a. roof
decks. b. floor decks.
c. (a)
and (b). d. none of the above.
31. Two dissimilar metals are generally separated from
each other by a
separator, which helps to prevent
a. atmospheric
corrosion. b. galvanic corrosion.
32. In a galvanized steel plate that carries the
designation G60, the number 60 means that
a. the
total mass of zinc coating on both surfaces of the plate is 60 oz/ft2.
b. the
total mass of zinc coating on each surface of the plate is 60 oz/ft2.
c. the
total mass of zinc coating on both surfaces of the plate is 60 g/ft2.
d. the
total mass of zinc coating on each surface of the plate is 60 g/ft2.
e. none of the above.
33. Spray-on fire protection materials for steel contain
a. portland cement with mineral fibers or lightweight
aggregate.
b. polymer-based
cement with mineral fibers or lightweight aggregate.
c. portland
cement with normal-weight aggregate.
d. polymer-based
cement with normal-weight aggregate.
e. any
one of the above, depending on the manufacturer.
34. Spray-on fire protection of steel gives a much cleaner
appearance than gypsum board encasement of steel.
a. True
b. False
35. Fire-protection of structural steel framing members is
mandated by building codes for all buildings.
a. True
b. False
36. According to
building codes, plain concrete (concrete without steel reinforcement) is not
permitted in new construction.
a.
True b. False
37. The yield strength of prestressing
steel is
a.
40 ksi. b. 50 ksi.
c.
60 ksi. d. 100 ksi.
e. none of the above.
38. The term prestressed
concrete refers to both pretensioned and posttensioned concrete.
a. True b. False
39. Which of the following statements is
true?
a.
The term strands includes tendons.
b. The term tendons includes
strands.
c.
The term tendons refers to reinforcing bars that have
been bent to required shapes.
d.
The term strands refers to reinforcing bars that have
been bent to required shapes.
e.
none of the above.
40. Which of the following statements is
true?
a. Pretensioning is generally done at the construction
site and yields a precast, prestressed concrete member.
b.
Pretensioning is generally done at the precaster’s plant and yields a
precast, prestressed concrete member.
c.
Posttensioning is generally done at the construction site and yields a
precast, posttensioned concrete member.
d.
Posttensioning is generally done at the precaster’s plant and yields a
precast, posttensioned concrete member.
41. In a typical sitecast
reinforced-concrete structure, the cost of formwork and shores is
a. approximately equal to the combined cost of concrete
and steel.
b.
approximately 75% of the combined cost of concrete and steel.
c.
approximately 50% of the combined cost of concrete and steel.
d.
approximately 25% of the combined cost of concrete and steel.
e.
none of the above.
42. Concrete shell roofs are not commonly
used because
a.
they require a relatively large amount of concrete per square foot of
floor area.
b.
they require a relatively large amount of steel reinforcement per square
foot.
c.
they require prestressing, which substantially raises their cost.
d.
all of the above.
e. none of the above.
43. In site-cast concrete construction,
shores are used
a.
in ground-supported concrete slabs.
b. in elevated concrete slabs.
c.
as formwork for concrete walls.
d.
as formwork for concrete columns.
e.
none of the above.
44. Height adjustability in shores made
of dimension lumber is provided
through
a.
lapped members clamped together with specially made clamps.
b.
a screw-based metal assembly.
c. (a) or (b).
d. height adjustability is not provided in shores.
45. Scaffold-type shores are generally
made from
a.
dimension lumber. b. plywood.
c. steel pipes. d. steel plates.
e.
all of the above.
46. High-density overlay (HDO) on form
plywood
a.
improves the strippability of forms.
b.
allows easier cleaning of forms.
c.
increases reusability of forms.
d. all of the above.
e.
none of the above.
47. Aluminum is commonly used as form and
shore material because
a.
it is chemically compatible with wet concrete.
b.
it is an easily nailable material.
c.
its strength-to-weight ratio is low, which reduces the weight of
forms
and shores.
d. its strength-to-weight ratio is high, which reduces
the weight of forms and shores.
e. all of the above.
48. The term flying form refers to
a.
a large formwork assembly for floor slabs.
b.
a large formwork assembly for roof slabs.
c. a large formwork assembly for floor and roof slabs.
d. a large formwork assembly for concrete walls.
e.
a large formwork assembly for columns.
49. Reshoring concrete structures is
necessary where excessive deflection of floor slabs or foundation settlement is
anticipated on removal of shores.
a.
True b. False
50. The structural design of formwork
design is the responsibility of the
a. general contractor.
b. structural engineer.
c.
structural engineer, but the design must be approved by the building
official.
d.
general contractor, but the design must be approved by the structural
engineer.
e.
none of the above.
51. Form liners are used to
a.
ensure easy strippability of forms.
b.
allow acid etching of the concrete surface after stripping the forms.
c.
allow acid etching of concrete form before placing concrete.
d. produce textured concrete surfaces.
e. allow water washing of concrete after stripping the forms.
52. The primary purpose of steel
reinforcement is to increase the tensile strength of concrete elements.
However, steel reinforcement is also used to increase the shear strength and
compressive strength of concrete elements.
a. True b. False
53. Stirrups are used in a concrete beam
a.
to increase the beam’s compressive strength.
b.
to provide tensile strength in the beam since concrete’s tensile strength
is negligible.
c.
to increase the tensile strength of the beam beyond that provided by
concrete.
d.
to provide shear strength in the beam because concrete’s shear strength
is negligible.
e. to increase the shear strength of the beam beyond that
provided by concrete.
54. Stirrups are generally made of
a. No. 3 or No. 4 bars.
b.
No. 4, No. 5, or No. 6 bars.
c.
No. 6 or No. 7 bars.
d.
bars of any diameter, as needed.
55. A doubly reinforced beam is one in
which
a.
reinforcing bars are provided in bundles of two bars.
b. reinforcing bars are provided at the top and bottom of
the beam.
c. reinforcing bars are provided in two layers at the bottom of the
beam.
d.
reinforcing bars are provided in two layers at the top of the beam.
e.
none of the above.
56. Mechanical couplers are used
a.
to lap splice reinforcing bars.
b.
as an economical alternative to lap splicing of reinforcing bars.
c.
where the lap-splice length of reinforcing bars is excessive.
d. where lap splicing of reinforcing bars will produce
excessive congestion.
e.
none of the above.
57. Hooks are used
a.
to lap splice reinforcing bars.
b.
where the lap-splice length is excessive.
c.
where lap splicing of bars will produce excessive congestion.
d.
all of the above.
e. none of the above.
58. Hooks in bars are produced by turning
the bars through
a.
305 or 605. b. 455 or 905.
c. 905 or 1805. d. 1805 or 2705.
59. Steel reinforcement in concrete
elements that are permanently exposed to the earth, such as in footings, must
have a minimum concrete cover of
a.
5 in. b. 4 in.
c. 3 in. d. 2 in.
e.
1 in.
60. The chairs used to support
reinforcing steel bars are generally
a.
plastic chairs.
b.
steel-encased plastic chairs.
c.
steel chairs with plastic-coated feet.
d.
(a) and (b).
e. (a) and (c).
61. The most important reason for
providing ties in a concrete column is to
a. prevent the buckling of longitudinal column bars.
b.
increase the compressive strength of a column.
c.
increase the shear strength of a column.
d.
allow the formwork to be tied to the longitudinal bars in the column.
e.
Ties are generally not provided in a concrete column.
62. The most important reason for
providing ties in a concrete wall is to
a.
prevent the buckling of longitudinal bars in the wall.
b.
increase the compressive strength of the wall.
c.
increase the shear strength of the wall.
d.
allow the formwork to be tied to the longitudinal bars in the wall.
e. Ties are generally not provided in a concrete wall.
63. Formwork for a concrete wall
generally consists of
a.
plywood, form ties, and walers fastened together with duplex nails.
b.
plywood, form ties, walers, and stiffbacks fastened together with duplex
nails.
c. plywood, form ties, walers, and stiffbacks fastened
together with clamps.
d.
plywood and stiffbacks fastened together with clamps.
64. A vapor retarder is required under
a.
all concrete slabs-on-ground.
b.
all exterior concrete slabs-on-ground.
c.
all interior concrete slabs-on-ground.
d. under some interior concrete slabs-on-ground.
65. The strength of concrete in a
residential concrete slab-on-ground is generally
a.
1,000 psi. b. 2,000 psi.
c. 3,000 psi. d. 4,000 psi.
e.
5,000 psi.
66. An isolated concrete slab-on-ground
is generally
a.
used on expansive soils.
b.
provided with perimeter beams.
c.
provided with perimeter and intermediate beams.
d.
unreinforced.
e. none of the above.
67. A construction joint in a concrete
slab-on-ground is required if the concrete in the slab cannot be placed in one
continuous operation.
a. True b. False
68. The tendons used for prestressing a
PT concrete slab-on-ground generally consist of
a.
a single 1 2@in.-diameter, nine-wire strand.
b. a single 1 2@in.-diameter,
seven-wire strand.
c.
two-strand tendons, each strand made of seven wires.
d.
three-strand tendons, each strand made of seven wires.
e.
none of the above.
69. In a PT concrete slab-on-ground, the
tendons are stressed from the
a.
dead ends. b. live ends.
c.
upper ends. d. lower ends.
e.
any one of the above.
70. Pocket formers in a PT concrete
slab-on-ground are used at
a.
dead ends. b. live ends.
c. upper ends. d. lower ends.
e.
any one of the above.
71.
A PT concrete slab-on-ground must
have perimeter and intermediate ribs.
a.
True b. False
72. Historical
load-bearing masonry structures were designed with the assumption that
a.
all wind loads on the building were resisted by exterior walls only, and
in doing so, they interacted with each other structurally.
b. all wind loads on the building were resisted by
exterior walls only, with no structural interaction between them.
c. both interior and exterior walls resisted wind loads.
d.
interior and exterior walls and floor and roof diaphragms resisted wind
loads collectively.
e.
none of the above.
73. Use of the load-bearing masonry wall
system became extinct for a while and was revived
a.
around the early nineteenth century.
b.
around the mid-nineteenth century.
c.
around the late nineteenth century.
d.
after World War I.
e. after World War II.
74. The structural behavior of a
contemporary load-bearing masonry wall building is similar to that of a
a. conventional wood light-frame building.
b.
site-cast reinforced-concrete frame building.
c.
precast-concrete frame building.
d.
steel-frame building.
e.
none of the above.
75. Referring to a masonry wall as a reinforced-masonry
wall implies that the wall contains
a.
horizontal reinforcing bars.
b.
joint reinforcement.
c. vertical reinforcing bars.
d. bond beams.
e.
none of the above.
76. Masonry walls without joint
reinforcement are called plain masonry walls.
a.
True b. False
77. A bond beam in a masonry bearing wall
building is required for structural reasons
a.
above all openings in exterior walls.
b.
at each floor level.
c. at each floor level and roof level.
d. at each floor level, roof level, and top of the parapet.
e.
none of the above.
78. A bond beam in a masonry bearing wall
building must be a
a.
steel, reinforced-concrete, reinforced-masonry, or wood beam.
b.
steel, reinforced-concrete, or reinforced-masonry beam.
c.
steel or reinforced-concrete beam.
d. reinforced-concrete or reinforced-masonry beam.
e.
none of the above.
79. A bond beam in a masonry bearing wall
building
a.
is preferably used along the shorter span.
b.
is preferably used along the longer span.
c.
may be used along the shorter or longer span.
d. is embedded in the walls.
e. none of the above.
80. A typical bond beam is provided with
a. horizontal reinforcement.
b.
stirrups.
c.
horizontal reinforcement and stirrups.
d.
none of the above.
81. A load-bearing wall structure works
best when the floor plan of the building has
a.
walls that are distributed almost uniformly in both principal directions.
b.
walls at an upper floor that align with the walls at a lower floor.
c.
walls that are continuous up from the foundations.
d. all of the above.
82. A cellular-type floor plan in a
multistory building is generally inherent in the following occupancies:
a. Residential occupancies
b. Business occupancies
c.
Educational occupancies
d.
Mercantile occupancies
e.
None of the above.
83. In a cross-bearing wall structure,
the load-bearing walls are
a. perpendicular to the main axis of the building.
b.
parallel to the main axis of the building.
c.
(a) or (b).
d.
(a) and (b).
84. Compared to a longitudinal-bearing
wall floor plan, a cross–bearing wall floor plan generally gives larger
exterior wall openings.
a. True b. False
85. The commonly used floor system in
high-rise and mid-rise masonry bearing wall buildings in North America is
a.
cast-in-place reinforced-concrete slabs.
b. precast-concrete hollow-core slabs.
c.
precast-concrete double-tee units.
d.
all of the above.
e.
none of the above.
86. The keyway between precast-concrete
hollow-core slabs runs perpendicular to the bearing walls.
a. True b. False
87. The keyway between precast-concrete
hollow-core slabs is generally
a.
grouted.
b.
reinforced with horizontal steel dowels.
c.
reinforced with T-shaped steel dowels.
d.
(a) and (c).
e. (a) and (b).
88. Where the cutting of masonry units is
discouraged, the wall dimensions are based on the masonry module. The module
used in CMU walls is
a.
4 in. b. 8 in.
c.
12 in. d. 16 in.
e.
none of the above.
89. The clear height of openings in CMU
walls is
a.
3/8 in. greater than the multiples of the masonry unit
module.
b. 3/8 in. less than the multiples of the masonry unit module.
c.
1/8 in. greater than the multiples of the masonry unit module.
d.
1/8 in. less than the multiples of the masonry unit module.
e.
none of the above.
90. In high-rise residential buildings
built with site-cast reinforced concrete bearing walls using tunnel forms, the
floors and roofs are generally constructed of
a.
steel joists and metal deck.
b.
wide-flange steel beams and metal deck.
c.
precast-concrete hollow-core slabs.
d.
lumber joists and beams.
e. none of the above.
91. The formwork used in constructing
site-cast reinforced-concrete walls and floors simultaneously consists of
a.
horizontal and vertical plywood forms.
b.
sheet steel gang forms.
c. sheet steel tunnel forms.
d. insulating concrete forms.
e.
none of the above.
92. Insulating concrete forms can only be
used for
a.
interior load-bearing walls.
b.
interior or exterior non-load-bearing walls
c.
exterior load-bearing walls more than 10 in. thick.
d.
all of the above.
e. none of the above.
93. The concrete
tilt-up wall construction system is generally used in
a.
high-rise buildings—20 stories or more.
b.
mid-rise buildings—5 to 15 stories.
c. low-rise buildings—1 to 4 stories.
d. all of the above, depending on the local expertise and
economy.
94. In a tilt-up
wall construction system, the walls are
a.
cast in place at the construction site.
b.
precast in a plant and transported to the construction site for erection.
c. precast at the construction site.
d. (b) or (c), whichever is more economical.
95. The temporary
braces that support concrete tilt-up walls are typically removed when
a.
all the walls of the building have been erected.
b.
all the walls have been anchored to the slab-on-ground.
c.
the roof structure is complete.
d. all of the above.
e. none of the above.
96. The most
commonly used strength of concrete for tilt-up wall panels is
a.
6,000 psi. b. 5,000 psi.
c. 4,000 psi. d. 3,000 psi.
e.
2,000 psi.
97. The most
commonly used strength of concrete for the slab-on-ground in concrete tilt-up
wall buildings is
a.
6,000 psi. b. 5,000 psi.
c. 4,000 psi. d. 3,000 psi.
e.
2,000 psi.
98. The foundations
for concrete tilt-up walls consist of
a.
continuous strip footings. b. isolated pad
footings.
c.
drilled pier footings. d. any one of
the above.
e. none of the above.
99. During the
erection of concrete tilt-up walls, a gap is left between the bottom of a wall
panel and the top of the footing. This gap is approximately
a.
1 2 in. b. 2 in.
c.
4 in. d. none of the above.
100.
The most commonly used method of
connecting tilt-up walls to the slab-on-ground is
a.
a continuous steel angle welded to walls and the slab-on-ground.
b. a continuous concrete closure strip in the
slab-on-ground.
c. individual steel plates welded to the walls and the
slab-on-ground.
d.
(a) or (c).
e.
(b) or (c).
101.
Reinforced-concrete tilt-up walls are
generally used as load-bearing enclosure walls.
a. True b. False